Prometric – OBG-3

A 24-year-old woman presents with dysuria, increased urinary frequency, and suprapubic pain. Urinalysis shows positive nitrites. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 22-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and is found to have a low hemoglobin level. What is the next step in management?

A 32-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain and heavy menstrual bleeding. Ultrasound shows an intramural fibroid. What is the best treatment option?

A 24-year-old woman presents with severe pelvic pain during menstruation. Pelvic exam reveals nodularity along the uterosacral ligaments. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 30-year-old woman presents with infertility and a history of endometriosis. What is the most likely cause of her infertility?

A 29-year-old woman with a history of recurrent miscarriages presents at 10 weeks gestation with spotting. What is the most appropriate management?

A 29-year-old woman presents with a painless vulvar mass. Biopsy reveals vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN). What is the next step in management?

A 33-year-old woman presents with menorrhagia and is found to have a thickened endometrium on ultrasound. What is the next step in management?

A 34-year-old woman presents with vulvar itching and white, curd-like discharge. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 28-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation presents with sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 40-year-old woman presents with abnormal uterine bleeding and an endometrial biopsy reveals complex hyperplasia with atypia. What is the most appropriate treatment?

A 32-year-old woman presents with postpartum hemorrhage after a normal vaginal delivery. Uterine atony is noted on exam. What is the first-line treatment?

A 28-year-old woman presents with bilateral breast tenderness and nipple discharge. Mammogram shows dense breast tissue without masses. What is the next step?

A 35-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain, fever, and purulent cervical discharge. Pelvic ultrasound shows tubo-ovarian abscess. What is the next step?

A 25-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea for 6 months and a history of significant weight loss. What is the most likely cause?

A 27-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea and galactorrhea. Serum prolactin levels are elevated. What is the most likely cause?

A 37-year-old woman with a history of multiple cesarean sections presents at 39 weeks gestation with contractions. What is the safest delivery option?

A 30-year-old woman presents with secondary amenorrhea and a history of dilation and curettage (D&C) for a prior miscarriage. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 22-year-old woman presents with vulvar itching and burning. Wet mount reveals motile trichomonads. What is the best treatment option?

A 30-year-old woman presents with severe right lower quadrant pain and fever. Transvaginal ultrasound shows a complex adnexal mass. What is the next step?