Prometric – OBG-5

A woman at 34 weeks gestation presents with regular uterine contractions but no cervical dilation. What is the next step?

A 25-year-old woman at 20 weeks gestation presents with a routine check-up and is found to have an anterior low-lying placenta on ultrasound. What is the best next step?

A 22-year-old woman with a history of irregular menstrual cycles presents with hirsutism and acne. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 25-year-old woman presents with a vulvar lesion. Biopsy reveals squamous cell carcinoma. What is the next step in management?

A 27-year-old woman at 24 weeks gestation presents with painful uterine contractions and vaginal bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A woman presents with a history of two previous cesarean sections and is now pregnant at 36 weeks. What is the safest delivery method?

A 30-year-old woman presents with infertility and a history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). What is the most likely cause of infertility?

A pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation presents with swelling of the face, hands, and legs along with headaches. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 32-year-old woman presents with symptoms of urinary frequency, urgency, and pelvic pressure. Ultrasound reveals a large fibroid. What is the next step in management?

A pregnant woman at 32 weeks presents with signs of preterm labor. What should be administered to promote fetal lung maturity?

A 30-year-old woman with a history of cervical dysplasia presents for routine follow-up after an abnormal Pap smear. What is the most appropriate next step?

A 36-year-old woman presents with postmenopausal bleeding. What is the next step in management?

A 33-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and pelvic pressure. Ultrasound shows a 6 cm submucosal fibroid. What is the best treatment option?

A 28-year-old woman in her third trimester presents with decreased fetal movement. What should be the next step?

A woman in her third trimester presents with constant right upper quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 26-year-old primigravida woman at 41 weeks gestation presents with no signs of labor. What is the next step?

A 19-year-old woman presents with severe lower abdominal pain and a positive pregnancy test. Ultrasound reveals no intrauterine pregnancy. What is the next step?

A 34-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation presents with sudden, painless vaginal bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 29-year-old woman presents with lower abdominal pain and missed periods. A urine pregnancy test is positive. What should be the next step in management?

A woman in her second trimester presents with a fundal height measurement that is larger than expected for gestational age. What is the most likely diagnosis?