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PrometricGPT – GP – 2
1 / 50
What is the most appropriate initial treatment for acute gout?
NSAIDs are the first-line treatment for acute gout due to their anti-inflammatory effects.
2 / 50
Which of the following is a common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
Hypothyroidism is a common cause of secondary amenorrhea due to hormonal imbalances.
3 / 50
Which vitamin deficiency is associated with night blindness?
Vitamin A deficiency can lead to night blindness due to its role in the visual cycle.
4 / 50
Which of the following is a major risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis?
Hyperlipidemia, especially high LDL cholesterol, is a major risk factor for atherosclerosis.
5 / 50
A patient presents with a swollen, painful calf following a long-haul flight. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is common after prolonged immobilization, such as long flights, leading to pain and swelling in the leg.
6 / 50
What is the first-line treatment for a patient with an acute asthma attack?
Short-acting beta-agonists (e.g., albuterol) are the first-line treatment for acute asthma attacks due to their quick bronchodilatory effect.
7 / 50
What is the most common cause of conductive hearing loss in adults?
Otosclerosis is the most common cause of conductive hearing loss in adults, due to abnormal bone growth in the middle ear.
8 / 50
Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with vomiting?
Vomiting leads to a loss of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia.
9 / 50
What is the most common cause of lower gastrointestinal bleeding in adults?
Diverticulosis is the most common cause of lower gastrointestinal bleeding in adults.
10 / 50
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for a deep puncture wound?
A tetanus booster is required for deep puncture wounds, especially if the patient’s vaccination history is incomplete.
11 / 50
Which medication is used as a first-line treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus?
Metformin is the first-line oral medication for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus.
12 / 50
What is the recommended daily dose of folic acid in pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects?
A daily dose of 4 mg of folic acid is recommended to prevent neural tube defects in pregnancy.
13 / 50
Which of the following is the most common type of thyroid cancer?
Papillary carcinoma is the most common type of thyroid cancer, known for its slow growth and good prognosis.
14 / 50
Which of the following is the most common site for a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?
The middle cerebral artery is the most common site for cerebrovascular accidents (strokes).
15 / 50
What is the most likely cause of jaundice in a newborn within the first 24 hours of life?
Hemolytic disease of the newborn, often due to Rh incompatibility, is the most likely cause of jaundice in the first 24 hours of life.
16 / 50
A 30-year-old patient presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Diabetes mellitus presents with the classic triad of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia.
17 / 50
What is the most common sexually transmitted infection (STI) worldwide?
HPV is the most common STI worldwide and is associated with cervical and other cancers.
18 / 50
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Cushing’s syndrome?
A “moon face” is a characteristic feature of Cushing’s syndrome due to excess cortisol production.
19 / 50
What is the first-line treatment for acute bacterial meningitis?
Ceftriaxone is the first-line treatment for acute bacterial meningitis due to its broad spectrum of activity and good penetration of the blood-brain barrier.
20 / 50
Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with heart failure?
NSAIDs are contraindicated in patients with heart failure as they can worsen fluid retention and increase blood pressure.
21 / 50
Which of the following is the primary cause of peptic ulcers?
Helicobacter pylori infection is the primary cause of peptic ulcers, particularly in the stomach and duodenum.
22 / 50
What is the most common cause of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
Prerenal azotemia, usually due to decreased renal perfusion (e.g., dehydration), is the most common cause of AKI.
23 / 50
A 45-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of palpitations and anxiety. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Hyperthyroidism often presents with palpitations, anxiety, and weight loss.
24 / 50
Which test is most appropriate for diagnosing osteoporosis?
DEXA is the gold standard for diagnosing osteoporosis by measuring bone mineral density.
25 / 50
Which of the following drugs is used for the long-term prevention of angina?
Beta-blockers are commonly used for the long-term prevention of angina by reducing the heart’s oxygen demand.
26 / 50
Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients with Addison’s disease?
Hyponatremia is common in Addison’s disease due to aldosterone deficiency, leading to sodium loss.
27 / 50
What is the most appropriate management for a patient with a displaced femoral neck fracture?
Surgical repair, often with hip replacement, is the standard management for displaced femoral neck fractures.
28 / 50
Which of the following is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
Escherichia coli is the most common cause of urinary tract infections due to its ability to adhere to the urinary epithelium.
29 / 50
A 35-year-old male presents with jaundice and elevated liver enzymes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Hepatitis, often viral, is the most likely cause of jaundice and elevated liver enzymes in this age group.
30 / 50
Which of the following conditions is associated with a “cherry-red spot” on fundoscopic examination?
Central retinal artery occlusion classically presents with a “cherry-red spot” on fundoscopic examination.
31 / 50
Which of the following is the most common cause of chronic liver disease worldwide?
Hepatitis B is the leading cause of chronic liver disease worldwide, especially in endemic areas.
32 / 50
What is the first-line treatment for a patient with an uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI)?
Nitrofurantoin is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated UTIs, particularly in women.
33 / 50
Which of the following is the most likely cause of a sudden painless loss of vision?
Central retinal artery occlusion presents with sudden, painless loss of vision and requires immediate intervention to prevent permanent damage.
34 / 50
Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is preferred in patients with chronic kidney disease?
ACE inhibitors are preferred in patients with chronic kidney disease due to their renal protective effects.
35 / 50
Which of the following is a complication of untreated hypertension?
Untreated hypertension can lead to left ventricular hypertrophy due to the increased workload on the heart.
36 / 50
Which of the following is used to monitor long-term blood glucose control in patients with diabetes?
HbA1c reflects long-term blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months and is commonly used in the management of diabetes.
37 / 50
What is the first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis?
DMARDs, such as methotrexate, are the first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis as they modify the disease process.
38 / 50
Which of the following vaccines is recommended annually for healthcare workers?
Healthcare workers are recommended to receive the influenza vaccine annually to prevent transmission to vulnerable patients.
39 / 50
A 60-year-old man presents with hematuria and weight loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Bladder cancer often presents with painless hematuria, particularly in older adults, and is associated with weight loss in advanced cases.
40 / 50
Which of the following is the gold standard test for diagnosing pulmonary embolism?
CT pulmonary angiography is the gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary embolism due to its high sensitivity and specificity.
41 / 50
Which of the following is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors?
A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors due to increased bradykinin levels.
42 / 50
What is the most common cause of end-stage renal disease (ESRD) worldwide?
Diabetes mellitus is the leading cause of end-stage renal disease worldwide due to long-standing hyperglycemia.
43 / 50
What is the most common type of stroke?
Ischemic strokes, caused by blood flow obstruction to the brain, account for the majority of strokes.
44 / 50
A 50-year-old patient presents with progressive weakness and fatigue. What is the most likely cause?
Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause fatigue, weakness, and neurological symptoms due to its role in red blood cell production and nerve function.
45 / 50
Which of the following is the first-line treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
Alpha-blockers, such as tamsulosin, are used to relieve symptoms of BPH by relaxing smooth muscles in the prostate and bladder neck.
46 / 50
What is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosing a suspected stroke within the first 24 hours?
CT scan is the preferred imaging modality for the initial assessment of suspected strokes within the first 24 hours to rule out hemorrhagic stroke.
47 / 50
Which of the following is a major complication of untreated hypertension?
Untreated hypertension can lead to strokes due to increased pressure on cerebral arteries.
48 / 50
What is the first-line treatment for scabies?
Permethrin cream is the first-line treatment for scabies, a contagious skin condition caused by mites.
49 / 50
Which of the following medications is most likely to cause hypoglycemia in patients with type 2 diabetes?
Sulfonylureas, such as glipizide, are associated with an increased risk of hypoglycemia in patients with type 2 diabetes.
50 / 50
What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for a patient with atrial fibrillation (AF)?
Rate control is the first-line approach in the management of atrial fibrillation to prevent rapid ventricular response.
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